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Certification Summary

In this chapter, we discussed the concepts of risks, threats, and vulnerabilities and their relationships; defined a formula that may be used to calculate risk; and saw that risk is a product of threats, vulnerabilities, and the value of assets with which we are concerned. We also came up with a possible definition of what constitutes a secure system and what are the requirements to protect such a system. Types of attackers, their motives, and their means were discussed, along with overviews of attack methods. Outlines of risk-management and risk-analysis techniques were discussed from the viewpoint of a risk-based management approach to information security. Understanding that we cannot eliminate all risks, we must nevertheless manage them—reducing, transferring, or accepting risks as appropriate, but never ignoring or rejecting them. Finally, we took a look at how attackers gather information about their targets, which may later be used in an attack, and how we can minimize the leakage of such information.

Two-Minute Drill

Here are some of the key points from the certification objectives in Chapter 2.

Describe Concepts of Insecure Systems, User Trust, Threat, and Risk

  • A secure system is a system that has certain security functionalities and that provides certain assurance that it will function in accordance with and enforce a defined security policy in a known environment, provided it is operated in a prescribed manner.

  • A trusted system or component has the power to break security policy. Trusted path is the term used to describe the secure communication channel between the user and the software (an application or the operating system itself). A trusted path exists when a mechanism is in place to assure the users that they are indeed interacting with the genuine application or the operating system, and not software that impersonates them.

  • A threat describes a business asset that is most likely to be attacked. This term defines the cost of an attack weighed against the benefit to the attacker that can be obtained through such an attack. It does not describe when an administrator decides to accept a specific risk.

  • A vulnerability describes how susceptible your system is to an attack and how likely you are to succumb to an attack if it occurs.

  • Risk assessment is a critical element in designing the security of systems and is a key step in the accreditation process that helps managers select cost- effective safeguards.

Explain Attackers, Motives, and Methods

  • Three factors must be present for an attack of any type to take place and succeed: the attacker must have a motive, an opportunity, and the means to carry out the attack.

  • Main categories of attackers may be descibed as script kiddies, amateur hackers, professional hackers, organized hacker groups, corporate hackers, and state-sponsored hackers.

  • Attack methods differ widely in their sophistication, effectiveness, and other properties; however, all attacks belong to one of the two broad types of attacks: passive attacks or active attacks.

  • Attacks from disgruntled employees are most dangerous because they have the closest physical and logical access to the internal infrastructure, applications, and data. Disgruntled employees also have a good understanding of business and technical climate, organization, and capabilities.

  • Most widely known attacks are eavesdropping, social engineering, buffer overflows, denial of service, spoofing, man in the middle, replay, hijacking, brute force, and dictionary attacks.

Describe How Attackers Gain Information, and Describe Methods to Reduce Disclosure

  • The first step in any attack is reconnaissance, or information gathering. At this stage, the attacker's goal is to collect as much information as possible. This stage is very important because the success of the entire attack largely depends on what information attackers have managed to collect.

  • Public databases and records provide a wealth of information that may be very useful to potential attackers in planning and carrying out an attack. Three such databases are the Domain Name System (DNS), the whois databases, and the IP address allocation databases maintained by the Regional Internet Registries (RIRs).

  • Utilities such as traceroute, ping, and their variants and incarnations also provide information regarding network topologies, names of network nodes and routers and their location, and other information.

  • Although much information is public, the goal is to minimize the amount of additional information given out that may help the attackers. Information that should be protected includes the following: types and version numbers of operating systems, versions of server software, details of network topology and infrastructure, and details of security mechanisms.

Self Test

The following questions will help you measure your understanding of the material presented in this chapter. Read all the choices carefully, because there might be more than one correct answer. Choose all correct answers for each question.

Describe Concepts of Insecure Systems, User Trust, Threat, and Risk

1. 

What is a trusted system? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. A trusted system is another name for a high-security system.

  2. A trusted system is a system that can break security policy if compromised.

  3. Trusted system refers to operating systems such as Trusted Solaris.

  4. Trusted systems are more rigorously designed and tested.

  5. All of the above

    B and D. A trusted system or component has the power to break one's security policy. Trusted systems are more rigorously designed and tested than untrusted systems.     A and C are incorrect because a high security system is not necessarily a trusted system and trusted systems do not refer to operating systems only.

2. 

If A trusts B, and B trusts C, then:

  1. A trusts C.

  2. A does not automatically trust C.

  3. C trusts A.

  4. The trust relationship is symmetric and bidirectional.

  5. All of the above

    B. Trust is not transitive.     A and C are incorrect because if A trusts B, and B trusts C, it does not mean that A automatically trusts C, or vice versa. D is incorrect because trust is not symmetric: if A trusts B, it doesn't mean that B trusts A.

3. 

User trust is

  1. Guaranteed by trusted systems

  2. Defined in security policy

  3. Gained and maintained by definition and enforcement of good security policies and their professional implementation

  4. Transitive and bidirectional

  5. All of the above

    C. User trust refers to users' expectations of the reasonable security of systems, which is the responsibility of security administrators who enforce security policy set by management. User trust may also refer to expectations of reasonable operation of systems (hardware and software).     A, B, and D are incorrect because user trust is not guaranteed by trusted systems, it is not defined in security policy, and it is not transitive and bi-directional.

4. 

What is a threat? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. A threat is the absence of security mechanisms.

  2. A threat is the opposite of assurance.

  3. A threat is anything that can exploit vulnerabilities.

  4. Threats may be natural, physical, and logical.

  5. All of the above

    C and D. A threat is anyone or anything that can exploit a vulnerability. Threats to information systems may be grouped into natural, physical, and logical threats.     A and B are incorrect because absence of security mechanisms is not a threat, and threat is not the opposite of assurance.

5. 

Vulnerabilities are weaknesses that can be exploited by

  1. Risks

  2. Threats

  3. Hackers

  4. Software bugs

  5. All of the above

    B and C. Vulnerabilities can be exploited by threats, and malicious hackers can pose a threat.     A and D are incorrect because risks and software bugs do not exploit vulnerabilities-risk is the possibility of an exploit and software bugs are vulnerabilities.

6. 

Why is risk management important? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Because it is impossible to eliminate all risks.

  2. Because it is not cost effective to eliminate all risks.

  3. Because it is a good governance practice.

  4. Because it improves business performance.

  5. All of the above

    E. All of the answers are correct.

7. 

Risk is a product of

  1. Threats – Vulnerabilities + Asset value

  2. Threats × Vulnerabilities + Asset value

  3. Threats × Vulnerabilities × Asset value

  4. Threats + Vulnerabilities × Asset value

  5. All of the above

    C. This simple formula conveniently shows the relationship between threats, vulnerabilities, and risk.     A, B, and D are incorrect because the correct formula is Threats   Vulnerabilities   Asset value = Risk.

8. 

Which of the following should be considered when estimating asset value? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Cost to acquire

  2. Cost to protect and maintain

  3. Market value

  4. Value to adversaries and competitors

  5. All of the above

    E. All answers are correct. Valuation of information assets is a complex and subjective exercise in which very often no single value is correct; however, the more factors you consider for the purposes of valuation, the more accurate your valuation would be.

Answers

1. 

þ B and D. A trusted system or component has the power to break one's security policy. Trusted systems are more rigorously designed and tested than untrusted systems.

ý A and C are incorrect because a high security system is not necessarily a trusted system and trusted systems do not refer to operating systems only.

2. 

þ B. Trust is not transitive.

ý A and C are incorrect because if A trusts B, and B trusts C, it does not mean that A automatically trusts C, or vice versa. D is incorrect because trust is not symmetric: if A trusts B, it doesn't mean that B trusts A.

3. 

þ C. User trust refers to users' expectations of the reasonable security of systems, which is the responsibility of security administrators who enforce security policy set by management. User trust may also refer to expectations of reasonable operation of systems (hardware and software).

ý A, B, and D are incorrect because user trust is not guaranteed by trusted systems, it is not defined in security policy, and it is not transitive and bi-directional.

4. 

þ C and D. A threat is anyone or anything that can exploit a vulnerability. Threats to information systems may be grouped into natural, physical, and logical threats.

ý A and B are incorrect because absence of security mechanisms is not a threat, and threat is not the opposite of assurance.

5. 

þ B and C. Vulnerabilities can be exploited by threats, and malicious hackers can pose a threat.

ý A and D are incorrect because risks and software bugs do not exploit vulnerabilities—risk is the possibility of an exploit and software bugs are vulnerabilities.

6. 

þ E. All of the answers are correct.

7. 

þ C. This simple formula conveniently shows the relationship between threats, vulnerabilities, and risk.

ý A, B, and D are incorrect because the correct formula is Threats × Vulnerabilities × Asset value = Risk.

8. 

þ E. All answers are correct. Valuation of information assets is a complex and subjective exercise in which very often no single value is correct; however, the more factors you consider for the purposes of valuation, the more accurate your valuation would be.

Explain Attackers, Motives, and Methods

9. 

For an attack to take place and succeed, which of the following should be present? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Opportunity

  2. Means

  3. Motives

  4. All of the above

    D. All answers are correct. For an attack of any type to take place and to succeed, three factors must be present: the attacker must have a motive, an opportunity, and the means to carry out the attack.

10. 

Do insiders pose a threat to information security, and if so, why?

  1. No, because they are bound by employment and confidentiality agreements.

  2. Yes, because they are not subject to access control.

  3. No, because they already have access to information.

  4. Yes, because they have more authorizations and knowledge.

  5. All of the above

    D. Company insiders constitute a higher threat than a person on the street because they have more authorized network access and sensitive knowledge than outsiders. In fact, risks posed by insider attacks are more substantial, require less means to mount, and may result in larger losses than risks posed by outside attackers. They may also be more difficult to detect and recover from.     A, B, and C are incorrect because although insiders are usually bound by employment and confidentiality agreements, that alone doesn't remove the threat. Insiders are subject to access controls, and access to information is not a threat in itself.

11. 

Which of the following has changed with the advent of information systems and the Internet? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Means

  2. Motives

  3. Opportunities

  4. Vulnerabilities

  5. All of the above

    A, C, and D. Means, opportunities, and vulnerabilities have changed with the advent of computers and computer networks.     B is incorrect because crime motives have not changed-a theft is a theft, regardless of whether it is a theft of a physical asset or information, and vandalism is vandalism, regardless of whether it occurs at a shop front or a web site.

12. 

Which of the following may be performed by an attacker during the actual attack? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Installation of backdoors

  2. Installation of Trojans

  3. Elevation of privileges

  4. Destruction of incriminating evidence

  5. All of the above

    A, B, and C. Attacks may include installation of backdoors, Trojans, and elevation of privileges.     D is incorrect because destruction of evidence is usually considered a post-attack activity. After the attack took place, the attackers may wish to destroy the evidence.

Answers

9. 

þ D. All answers are correct. For an attack of any type to take place and to succeed, three factors must be present: the attacker must have a motive, an opportunity, and the means to carry out the attack.

10. 

þ D. Company insiders constitute a higher threat than a person on the street because they have more authorized network access and sensitive knowledge than outsiders. In fact, risks posed by insider attacks are more substantial, require less means to mount, and may result in larger losses than risks posed by outside attackers. They may also be more difficult to detect and recover from.

ý A, B, and C are incorrect because although insiders are usually bound by employment and confidentiality agreements, that alone doesn't remove the threat. Insiders are subject to access controls, and access to information is not a threat in itself.

11. 

þ A, C, and D. Means, opportunities, and vulnerabilities have changed with the advent of computers and computer networks.

ý B is incorrect because crime motives have not changed—a theft is a theft, regardless of whether it is a theft of a physical asset or information, and vandalism is vandalism, regardless of whether it occurs at a shop front or a web site.

12. 

þ A, B, and C. Attacks may include installation of backdoors, Trojans, and elevation of privileges.

ý D is incorrect because destruction of evidence is usually considered a post-attack activity. After the attack took place, the attackers may wish to destroy the evidence.

Describe How Attackers Gain Information, and Describe Methods to Reduce Disclosure

13. 

What are the public sources of information that may be useful to an attacker? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Domain Name System

  2. Whois databases

  3. Business directories

  4. Annual reports

  5. All of the above

    E. All these sources contain information that may potentially be useful to attackers. The only issue is just how useful such information is and how difficult it is to obtain this information.

14. 

Are Internet protocols that do not include confidentiality mechanisms vulnerable to sniffing, and if so, why?

  1. Yes, because they were developed a while ago.

  2. No, because they include anti-sniffing handshakes.

  3. Yes, because they mostly transmit unencrypted information.

  4. No, because it is difficult to mount sniffing attacks on the Internet.

  5. All of the above

    C. Internet protocols that do not include confidentiality mechanisms are insecure and prone to eavesdropping attacks because they transmit unencrypted information, so passwords and other information sent across the network may easily be captured and misused.     A, B, and D are incorrect because when the protocol was developed does not directly affect its security, there is no such term as anti-sniffing handshakes, and it is not difficult to mount sniffing attacks on the Internet.

15. 

Why can't technical measures be used to defend against social engineering?

  1. Because it is basically a human problem.

  2. Because it involves subjective decisions.

  3. Social engineering is not really an issue.

  4. Because technical measures are not good enough.

  5. All of the above

    A. Social engineering takes on different forms, but the central concept of social engineering is exploiting human qualities or weaknesses to achieve one's aim. The only defense against social engineering is having security-aware and risks-aware staff and management-technological defenses do not protect against social engineering.     B, C, and D are incorrect because social engineering is a real security issue and because technical measures simply do not address social engineering risks.

16. 

Which security principles may be used to protect against buffer overflows? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Principle of compartmentalization

  2. Principle of minimization

  3. Defense in depth

  4. Secure programming

  5. All of the above

    A, B, and C. What we can do is to design and administer systems in such a way that risks resulting from buffer overflows are understood, minimized, and controlled. Compartmentalization prevents the compromise of the entire system when one compartment is compromised; minimization reduces the potential attack targets and channels; and defense in depth guards against failure of some security controls.     D is incorrect because secure programming is not a security principle. There isn't much we as security administrators can do to fix buffer overflows.

17. 

Which of the following may protect against spoofing attacks?

  1. Encryption

  2. Cryptographic initiation

  3. Cryptographic authentication

  4. Secret addresses

  5. All of the above

    C. The most effective defense against spoofing is the use of cryptographic authentication and digital signatures.     A is incorrect because encryption does not necessarily protect against spoofing. There is no such term as cryptographic initiation ( B ), and secret addresses don't make sense ( D ).

18. 

Continuous authentication protects against

  1. Hacking

  2. Script kiddies

  3. Hijacking attacks

  4. Sniffing

  5. All of the above

    C. Continuous authentication protects against hijacking attacks.    Answers A and B are too general. D is incorrect because continuous authentication does not protect against sniffing unless all traffic is encrypted.

19. 

How can you protect systems against brute-force attacks? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Use strong authentication

  2. Make the amount of time and computations required for the attack unaffordable

  3. Use longer passwords and keys

  4. Use Role-Based Access Control

  5. All of the above

    B and C. The defense against brute-force attacks is to make the amount of time and computations required to conduct an exhaustive search impossible to afford by using a sufficiently large set-that is, longer passwords or keys.     A and D are incorrect. The use of strong authentication alone would not guarantee protection against brute-force attacks, and role-based access control does not address the risk of brute-force attacks.

20. 

What is the rationale behind nondisclosure of software version numbers and other details of systems? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Makes attackers spend more time and effort

  2. Avoids easy identification of bugs and vulnerabilities of deployed software

  3. Avoids or minimizes script kiddie attacks

  4. Complies with principles of minimization and least privilege

  5. All of the above

    E. All of the answers are correct. It is important to protect software version numbers and other details of your systems in order to make attackers spend more time and effort on an attack, to avoid easy identification of bugs and vulnerabilities of deployed software, to avoid or minimize script kiddie attacks, and to comply with principles of minimization and least privilege.

Answers

13. 

þ E. All these sources contain information that may potentially be useful to attackers. The only issue is just how useful such information is and how difficult it is to obtain this information.

14. 

þ C. Internet protocols that do not include confidentiality mechanisms are insecure and prone to eavesdropping attacks because they transmit unencrypted information, so passwords and other information sent across the network may easily be captured and misused.

ý A, B, and D are incorrect because when the protocol was developed does not directly affect its security, there is no such term as anti-sniffing handshakes, and it is not difficult to mount sniffing attacks on the Internet.

15. 

þ A. Social engineering takes on different forms, but the central concept of social engineering is exploiting human qualities or weaknesses to achieve one's aim. The only defense against social engineering is having security-aware and risks-aware staff and management—technological defenses do not protect against social engineering.

ý B, C, and D are incorrect because social engineering is a real security issue and because technical measures simply do not address social engineering risks.

16. 

þ A, B, and C. What we can do is to design and administer systems in such a way that risks resulting from buffer overflows are understood, minimized, and controlled. Compartmentalization prevents the compromise of the entire system when one compartment is compromised; minimization reduces the potential attack targets and channels; and defense in depth guards against failure of some security controls.

ý D is incorrect because secure programming is not a security principle. There isn't much we as security administrators can do to fix buffer overflows.

17. 

þ C. The most effective defense against spoofing is the use of cryptographic authentication and digital signatures.

ý A is incorrect because encryption does not necessarily protect against spoofing. There is no such term as cryptographic initiation (B), and secret addresses don't make sense (D).

18. 

þ C. Continuous authentication protects against hijacking attacks.

ý Answers A and B are too general. D is incorrect because continuous authentication does not protect against sniffing unless all traffic is encrypted.

19. 

þ B and C. The defense against brute-force attacks is to make the amount of time and computations required to conduct an exhaustive search impossible to afford by using a sufficiently large set—that is, longer passwords or keys.

ý A and D are incorrect. The use of strong authentication alone would not guarantee protection against brute-force attacks, and role-based access control does not address the risk of brute-force attacks.

20. 

þ E. All of the answers are correct. It is important to protect software version numbers and other details of your systems in order to make attackers spend more time and effort on an attack, to avoid easy identification of bugs and vulnerabilities of deployed software, to avoid or minimize script kiddie attacks, and to comply with principles of minimization and least privilege.


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